2008年6月25日星期三

Sybase 510-410 Exam

PrepKit 510-410 exam , sybase ase sql developer associate exam is an interactive software that helps you learn, tracks your progress, identifies areas for improvements and simulates the actual exam. This PrepKit contains 5 interactive practice tests with over 280 challenging questions guaranteed to comprehensively cover all the objectives for the 510-410: sybase ase sql developer associate exam. With detailed analysis for each question, over 100 study notes, interactive quizzes, tips and technical articles, this PrepKit ensures that you get a solid grasp of core technical concepts to ace your certification exam.


1.Which of the following are true about triggers? (Choose 2)


A:Triggers can create permanent tables.

B:Each table may have an insert, delete and update trigger. 050-895

C:Each view may have an insert, delete and update trigger.

D:Stored procedures may call triggers.

E:Triggers may call stored procedures.

Correct Answers: B, E


2.Which of the following statements about IDENTITY columns are true? (Choose 2)


A:There can be only one IDENTITY column per table.

B:There can be only one IDENTITY column per index.

C:IDENTITY columns must be declared with the integer datatype. ee0-411

D:IDENTITY columns must be declared with the decimal datatype.

E:IDENTITY columns must be declared with the numeric datatype.

Correct Answers: A, E


3.Which of the following are true about views? (Choose 2)


A:You can create a view only in the current database. 000-M22

B:You can create a view on a temporary table.

C:You can create a trigger on a view.

D:You can build an index on a view.

E:You can select data from multiple tables.

Correct Answers: A, E


4.What is the default isolation level for Adaptive Server?


A: Isolation level 0 (read uncommitted)

B: Isolation level 1 (read committed)

C: Isolation level 2 (repeatable reads)

D: Isolation level 3 (serializable)

Correct Answers: B


5.create table test_title (name char(10), address varchar(55)) lock allpages Where will Adaptive Server insert the next row in the test_title table?


A: Rows are inserted in clustered index key order

B: Rows are inserted at the end of the page chain

C: Rows are inserted randomly to avoid contention 1T6-511

D: Rows are inserted in date order

Correct Answers: B


6.How many rows are inserted by the following code fragment?

declare @x tinyint 1T6-521

select @x = 0

if @x > 0

insert t values (1)

else

insert t values (2)

insert t values (3)


A: 0

B: 1

C: 2

D: 3

Correct Answers: C


7.create table employees


(emp_id int constraint chk_emp_id check(emp_id > 500),

dept_id int default 1300,

name varchar(40))


Which one of the insert statement fails?


A: insert into employees (emp_id, dept_id, name)

values(252,1200,Tony Adams)

B: insert into employees (emp_id, dept_id, name) ec0-479

values(719,1500,Lee Dixon)

C: insert into employees (emp_id, dept_id, name)

values(801, default, Denis Bergkamp)

D: insert into employees (emp_id, dept_id, name)

values(601,1400,Ashley Cole)

Correct Answers: A


8.What command can be used to display the final decisions that the optimizer makes about queries? (Choose 2)


A:set showplan on

B:set noexec on

C:set statistics io on

D:dbcc traceon(302)

E:dbcc traceon(310)

Correct Answers: A, E


9.Which of the following are true about primary key constraints? (Choose 2)


A:it creates a unique index on the specified columns

B:it can be created on a column that allows null values

C:up to 255 primary key constraints can be created on a single table HT0-201

D:it must be dropped using the alter table command

E:it creates a non unique index on the specified columns

Correct Answers: A, D


10.Given the following stored procedure:



create procedure p

as

begin

create table #p1 (a int)

exec ("create table #p2 (a int)")

end

How many temporary tables will exist for the current session after the following code fragment has been executed:

create table #t1 (a int) JN0-342

execute p


A: 0

B: 1

C: 2

D: 3

Correct Answers: B


More Information:ee0-425 
BH0-004 
1T6-220 
510-022  
510-007

2008年6月3日星期二

itrix 1Y0-973 Exam Demo


"CCEA XP MetaFrame Password Manager 2.5: Administration", also known as 1Y0-973 exam, is a Citrix certification.


1.The primary encryption keys are based upon which kind of information?


A: Server name

B: Application name

C: Identity verification information

D: Application credential information

Correct Answers:  C


2.When configuring an application it is important that the application is  _____.  (Fill in the blank with the correct option.)


A: published on a server running MetaFrame Presentation Server

B: installed in the same place as the MetaFrame Password Manager agent 1z0-312

C: listed in the application list of the MetaFrame Password Manager console

D: running on the same operating system as the MetaFrame Password Manager agent

Correct Answers:  D


3.You are the MetaFrame administrator for your enterprise. You have successfully created a Synchronization Point on your Novell Netware server using the CtxNWFileSyncPrep utility provided by Citrix. You connect to the Synchronization point using the MetaFrame Password Manager console and you wish to configure Agent Settings. 1Z0-202


When configuring the SyncManager settings in the console, what are two reasons for using Novell Netware File Share, instead of the Microsoft NTFS File Share for the Synchronizer type? (Choose two.)


A:The Novell SyncManager will create a user's folder based on the user's Login Domain, and username.

B:The NTFS SyncManager must alter permissions when creating a user's credential store on the sync point.

C:The Novell SyncManager must alter permissions when creating a user's credential store on the sync point. 642-444

D:The Novell SyncManager will create a user's folder based on the user's Login Tree, Context, and username.

Correct Answers:  C, D


4.By default, for how many days is the DaysBeforeDelete setting in the Agent Settings node of MetaFrame Password Manager 2.5 configured?


A: 5

B: 7

C: 30

D: 90

E: 365

Correct Answers:  C


5.You are the MetaFrame administrator for your enterprise. You will be using a File Share synchronization point for your MetaFrame Password Manager deployment.  You have just created a shared folder named "People" using the CtxFileSyncPrep.EXE utility. Which security measure must be taken to secure the servers running MetaFrame Presentation Server? 050-695


A: Add CREATOR OWNER to the "People" folder's permission sheet.

B: Remove the EVERYONE group from the shared folder's permission sheet.

C: No action is required; the CtxFileSyncPrep.EXE utility has already applied the required security settings.

D: Disable llow inheritable permission from parent to propagate to this object?in the shared folder's permission sheet. 1Y0-992

Correct Answers:  C


6.Which value must be configured when using a web application template?


A: URL

B: Realm

C: Form name

D: Frame name

Correct Answers:  A


7.You are the administrator for your network. One of your colleagues recently installed MetaFrame Password Manager on one of the farm servers. Users connecting to that server are experiencing logon problems. You need to find out which GINA was installed prior to the installation of MetaFrame Password Manager.


Which of the following registry keys will provide that information?


A: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Citrix\MetaFrame Password Manager\Shell\GINADLL 000-998

B: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Citrix\MetaFrame Password Manager\Shell\OrigGINADLL

C: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Winlogon\GinaDLL

D: HKEY_LOCAL_MACHINE\SOFTWARE\Microsoft\Windows NT\CurrentVersion\Winlogon\OrigGinaDLL

Correct Answers:  B


8.Which algorithm is used by MetaFrame Password Manager to encrypt and decrypt user credentials?


A: AES

B: RC-4

C: RC-5

D: Triple-DE

Correct Answers:  D


9.Which three statements are true when implementing a shared folder as the central credential store? (Choose three.)


A:The shared folder should be a UNC path.

B:All users must have full control permissions to the share.

C:Administrators must have full control permissions to the share.

D:The CTXFILESYNCPREP.EXE utility should be run on the system hosting the share. 350-018

E:The system hosting the shared folder should be in the same domain as the agents that it will synchronize.

Correct Answers:  A, D, E


10.An administrator will implement MetaFrame Password Manager to provide SSO for users who access published applications using Web Interface for MetaFrame Presentation Server. Users currently access applications through a browser using an ICA client. Remote connections are secured through the use of Secure Gateway for MetaFrame Presentation Server.


In which location should the agent be installed for this deployment scenario?


A: On the server running the Secure Gateway service

B: On each MetaFrame Presentation Server in the farm

C: On the system with the Secure Ticketing Authority installed 4A0-107

D: On the Internet Information Server hosting Web Interface for MetaFrame Presentation Server

Correct Answers:  B


More information:EX0-103   HP0-S13  
JN0-303   MB7-515  
NS0-320   SY0-101   050-707  1T6-511  1T6-521   250-240   250-924

2008年5月21日星期三

Free Oracle 1z0-301 Exam Demo

"oracle9ias:basic administration", also known as 1z0-301 exam, is a Oracle certification.


1.You are running several Oracle 9iAS instances behind one Web Cache instance running on a different host.


The Web Cache is on ed-sun1.oracle.com:80. Web Cache expects to find the 9iAS instance you are configuring at ed-sun3.oracle.com:7780. You are using Portal. There is a firewall blocking direct client access to the 9iAS instances. Any directive not shown has its default value.


What is the correct configuration to allow rewritten requests to be handled by the Web Cache and passed through?


A: Port 7780

Listen 7780

ServerName ed-sun3.oracle.com

UseCanonicalName On

B: Port 80 1z0-312

Listen 7780

ServerName ed-sun1.oracle.com

ServerTokens Full

C: Port 7780

Listen 80

ServerName ed-sun1.oracle.com

ServerTokens prod

D: Port 80

Listen 80

ServerName ed-sun3.oracle.com

UseCanonicalName on

E: Port 80

Listen 7780

ServerName ed-sun3.oracle.com

ServerTokens prod

F: Port 7780

Listen 80

ServerName ed-sun1.oracle.com

ServerTokens Full

Correct Answers: B


3.Which three directives are allowed only in a server level context and not in any other context? (Choose three.)


A:Include

B:ServerName

C:ServerRoot

D:MaxClients

E:ServerAdmin

F:DocumentRoot

G:DirectoryIncludes

Correct Answers: A, C, D


4.The OID server in your organization contains various details of the organization. You are asked to set up the hierarchy structure of your department in the OID server. What should you create?


A: Naming Context

B: Directory Schema

C: Department Attribute 1Z0-202

D: Database table in the ODS schema with all the user details as rows

Correct Answers: A


5.Which two security solutions enable the user to access multiple systems with one password? (Choose two.)


A:Firewalls

B:Checksumming

C:Single sign-on

D:Grouping privileges

E:Encryption/decryption

F:Strong authentication

Correct Answers: C, F


6.Which statement is true about the Oracle9iAS Single Sign-On session duration?


A: It is applicable to partner applications only.

B: It is applicable to external applications only.

C: It is applicable to all single sign-on sessions.

D: It is applicable to administrative sessions only.050-695

Correct Answers: C


7.Which six correctly match the item to its description? (Choose six.)


A:Dispatcher: Listens for LDAP requests

B:LDAP server process: Processes LDAP requests

C:Dispatcher: Sends changes to other OID nodes

D:Oracle Directory Manager: Displays configuration sets

E:OID Replication process: Sends changes to other OID nodes

F:OID Monitor: Initiates and terminates OID server processes

G:LDAP server process: Initiates and terminates OID server processes

H:OID Control Utility: Accepts commands to start and stop OID instances

Correct Answers: A, B, D, E, F, H


8.You are viewing the Farm Home Page for the farm that contains Instance IAS-1. You wish to observe operating system information for the node where IAS-1 has been started. Which operation would allow you to navigate to the correct Host Home Page?


A: On your Farm Home Page, click the Host link next to the Instance IAS-1.

B: On your Farm Home Page, select Instance IAS-1 and click the 'Host' command button.

C: On your Farm Home Page, click on the Instance IAS-1 link. From the Instance Home Page, click the 'Host' command button in the Administration Section.

D: On your Farm Home Page, click the Instance IAS-1 link. From the Instance Home Page, click the Host link in the General section. 000-998

Correct Answers: D


9.Which mod_plsql directive protects procedures, packages, or schemas from being directly executed from a browser?


A: PlsqlDefaultPage

B: PlsqlPathAliasProcedure

C: PlsqlExclusionList

D: PlsqlBeforeProcedure

Correct Answers: C


10.In an enterprise there are many users working with different applications. User credentials are stored in the OID server. You are asked to change some information for a particular user. Which three tools can you use to change the user information? (Choose three.)


A:SQLPlus Worksheet

B:OID Configuration Assistant

C:Oracle Directory Manager (ODM)

D:Oracle Enterprise Manager (OEM)

E:Delegated Administrative Service (DAS)

F:Oracle Internet Directory Command-line tools

Correct Answers: C, E, F


More information:350-018   4A0-107   642-444   642-892   646-362   70-238   70-340   70-443

2008年5月19日星期一

Free NOVELL 050-695 Exam Demo

"Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8", also known as 050-695 exam, is a Novell, Inc certification.

Free NOVELL 050-695 Exam Demo


2.Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an eDirectory tree?


A: Time synchronization strategy

B: Number of objects in the tree

C: Number of servers in the tree

D: Physical network infrastructure

E: Number of partitions and replicas

Correct Answers: D


3.Why should the eDirectory database be partitioned and replicated? (Choose 2.) 050-695


A:To provide time synchronization

B:To provide fault tolerance for eDirectory

C:To provide fault tolerance for the file system

D:To simplify administration of eDirectory security

E:To provide more efficient access to eDirectory information

Correct Answers: B, E


4.You are the project lead of your company's eDirectory design and implementation effort. Your company is installing 10 NetWare 5 servers. You are getting ready to design the eDirectory tree. In accordance with the eDirectory design cycle, which tasks should you complete before you design the eDirectory tree? (Choose 2.)


A:Plan the user environment 000-998

B:Plan a time synchronization strategy

C:Determine the scope of the design process

D:Determine a partition and replica strategy

E:Gather business information related to network design

Correct Answers: C, E


5.When developing a User Environment plan, what is the next step after you create a User Accessibility Needs document?


A: Design the lower layers of the eDirectory tree

B: Design the upper layers of the eDirectory tree

C: Create an Administrative Strategies document

D: Create an Accessibilities Guidelines document

E: Create an eDirectory Naming Standards document

Correct Answers: D


6.Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?


A: Master

B: Master and filtered

C: Master and read/only

D: Master and read/write

E: Master,read/write, and read-only

F: Master, read/write, and filtered

G: Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference

Correct Answers: E


7.Which is recommended when designing the upper layers of your eDirectory tree?


A: Use a flat tree design.

B: Avoid large container sizes.

C: Minimize the number of login scripts.

D: Create containers that reflect common employee access needs.

E: Keep the eDirectory tree name short, descriptive, and unique. 1Z0-202

Correct Answers: E


8.What is used to adjust different time zones to get an equivalent time for time synchronization?


A: NTP

B: Timesync

C: Time stamps

D: Universal Time Coordinated (UTC)

Correct Answers: D


9.What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an eDirectory tree?


A: Partition and replica plan

B: Time synchronization strategy

C: Number of objects in the tree

D: Number of servers in the tree

E: Physical network infrastructure 1z0-312

Correct Answers: E


10.Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your eDirectory tree?


A: It is the best design type to handle future growth.

B: It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.

C: It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.

D: It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.

E: It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.

Correct Answers: C

More information:ee0-411  050-895   ee0-425   BH0-004  qq0-100  1Y0-992  qq0-200  9A0-056  000-649

Free NOVELL 050-695 Exam Demo

"Novell eDirectory Design and Implementation:eDirectory 8.8", also known as 050-695 exam, is a Novell, Inc certification.

Free NOVELL 050-695 Exam Demo


2.Which of the following is most important to consider when designing the upper layers of an eDirectory tree?


A: Time synchronization strategy

B: Number of objects in the tree

C: Number of servers in the tree

D: Physical network infrastructure

E: Number of partitions and replicas

Correct Answers: D


3.Why should the eDirectory database be partitioned and replicated? (Choose 2.) 050-695


A:To provide time synchronization

B:To provide fault tolerance for eDirectory

C:To provide fault tolerance for the file system

D:To simplify administration of eDirectory security

E:To provide more efficient access to eDirectory information

Correct Answers: B, E


4.You are the project lead of your company's eDirectory design and implementation effort. Your company is installing 10 NetWare 5 servers. You are getting ready to design the eDirectory tree. In accordance with the eDirectory design cycle, which tasks should you complete before you design the eDirectory tree? (Choose 2.)


A:Plan the user environment 000-998

B:Plan a time synchronization strategy

C:Determine the scope of the design process

D:Determine a partition and replica strategy

E:Gather business information related to network design

Correct Answers: C, E


5.When developing a User Environment plan, what is the next step after you create a User Accessibility Needs document?


A: Design the lower layers of the eDirectory tree

B: Design the upper layers of the eDirectory tree

C: Create an Administrative Strategies document

D: Create an Accessibilities Guidelines document

E: Create an eDirectory Naming Standards document

Correct Answers: D


6.Which replica or replicas contain a complete copy of all object information of a partition?


A: Master

B: Master and filtered

C: Master and read/only

D: Master and read/write

E: Master,read/write, and read-only

F: Master, read/write, and filtered

G: Master, read/write, read-only, and subordinate reference

Correct Answers: E


7.Which is recommended when designing the upper layers of your eDirectory tree?


A: Use a flat tree design.

B: Avoid large container sizes.

C: Minimize the number of login scripts.

D: Create containers that reflect common employee access needs.

E: Keep the eDirectory tree name short, descriptive, and unique. 1Z0-202

Correct Answers: E


8.What is used to adjust different time zones to get an equivalent time for time synchronization?


A: NTP

B: Timesync

C: Time stamps

D: Universal Time Coordinated (UTC)

Correct Answers: D


9.What is the most important design consideration when designing the upper layers of an eDirectory tree?


A: Partition and replica plan

B: Time synchronization strategy

C: Number of objects in the tree

D: Number of servers in the tree

E: Physical network infrastructure 1z0-312

Correct Answers: E


10.Which statement is true regarding the function-based design for the upper layers of your eDirectory tree?


A: It is the best design type to handle future growth.

B: It should be used if there is a WAN in the network.

C: It is best for small networks that do not span more than one location.

D: It is a more difficult type of design for the upper layers of your tree.

E: It should be used if there are multiple organization objects in the tree.

Correct Answers: C

More information:ee0-411  050-895   ee0-425   BH0-004  qq0-100  1Y0-992  qq0-200  9A0-056  000-649

2008年5月16日星期五

Free IBM 000-998 Exam Demo

"Test998, WebSphere Message Broker V6.0, System Admin", also known as 000-998 exam, is a IBM certification.


Preparing for the 000-998 exam? Searching 000-998 Test Questions, 000-998 Practice Exam, 000-998 Dumps?


1.When a publishing application writes its input to a message flow, to what mandatory queue name is it written?


A: Any name not used for other purposes, yet.

B: SYSTEM.BROKER.CONTROL.QUEUE

C: SYSTEM.BROKER.DEFAULT.STREAM

D: SYSTEM.BROKER.CLIENTS.DATA

Correct Answers: A


2.What must a system administrator consider when deploying a broker archive file using the mqsideploy command with the -m parameter?


A: The content of the broker archive file is deployed in addition to what is currently running in the execution group.

B: This broker archive file is deployed to any broker in the domain which has an execution group with the name specified in the command.

C: This parameter is valid for deploying topology configurations, broker configurations and topology trees, but not for broker archive files.9A0-061

D: All currently deployed message flows and message sets are removed on the execution group specified in the command.

Correct Answers: D


3.A company develops a mobile application that uses WebSphere MQ Everyplace. The application needs to be integrated with other applications of the company using WebSphere Message Broker. Which of the following is the best method to achieve this in WebSphere Message Broker V6?


A: Use an MQeBridge adaptor for interaction between the mobile application and broker.

B: Use the MQeInput and MQeOutput nodes to directly interact with the mobile application.70-624

C: Configure an MQe Gateway that acts as an intermediary between the MQe device and broker.

D: Make sure that a mobile application can directly interact with WebSphere Message Broker without any additional configuration changes.

Correct Answers: C


4.A company is running WebSphere Message Broker instances on various platforms, including UNIX, Linux (x86) and Windows. What must a system administrator consider when creating batch scripts in order to automate the creation and deployment of broker archive files which should run on these platforms?


A: The creation of broker archive files using the mqsicreatebar command is supported only on Linux and Windows.

B: It is a best practice to create and test the batch files on Windows. They can then be used on Linux and UNIX without modification.70-557

C: When specifying the options for the mqsicreatebar and mqsideploy command on UNIX and Linux, the names are case-sensitive, while on Windows they are not.

D: When using the mqsicreatebar and the mqsideploy command in the same batch script it must be assured that the broker archive files are stored on the same machine where the batch script is executed.

Correct Answers: A


5.What must be done on any distributed platform before a broker runtime command can be used?


A: The command mqsisetparms must be executed to setup the environment parameters.

B: The environment must be initialized, by executing the mqsiprofile command.

C: The parameters of the mqsicfgutil.ini file must be set to define the environment properly.70-503(CSharp)

D: A database must be installed and a Queue manager must be created.

Correct Answers: B


6.An administrator has been asked to set user debug trace on a flow F1 running in execution group ExeGrp1 on broker BRK1. The broker is running in a domain controlled by a Configuration Manager ConfigMgr. Which of the following commands needs to be run to set the trace?


A: mqsichangetrace ConfigMgr -u -b BRK1 -e ExeGrp1 -f F1 -l debug

B: mqsichangetrace BRK1 -u -e ExeGrp1 -f F1 -l debug

C: mqsichangetrace ConfigMgr -u -b BRK1 -e ExeGrp1 -f F1 -c debug

D: mqsichangetrace BRK1 -u -e ExeGrp1 -f F1 -c debug

Correct Answers: B


7.What will be the outcome once the following command is issued?


mqsicreateexecutiongroup -i localhost -p 1414 -q MYQMGR -b MYBROKER e EG1


A: A command is sent to the Configuration Manager which creates the execution group EG1 on the MYBROKER broker.

B: The Configuration Manager sends a command to the brokers queue manager 'MYQMGR' which then creates an execution group called EG1 on the broker 'MYBROKER'.

C: The Configuration Manager creates an execution group EG1 on the broker when it is next deployed.70-443

D: The Broker's queue manager 'MYQMGR' receives a request to create an execution group called EG1 over port 1414.

Correct Answers: C


8.A company with a shared Websphere Message Broker hub wishes to charge individual departments for their usage of the hub. It is recommended that the company do which of the following?


A: Purchase a Websphere Message Broker monitoring product that can track throughput and usage patterns.

B: Issue the mqsichangeflowstats command to initiate data collection.70-340

C: Have all applications utilize a compact subflow which writes a usage record to an auditing/accounting table.

D: Utilize Websphere Message Broker on the mainframe, as that is the only native way to capture this information.

Correct Answers: B


9.In a broker domain, the user name server and a broker reside on the same queue manager. On a second machine, the Configuration Manager and another broker reside on the same queue manager. How many unidirectional channels are necessary to allow the User Name Server to communicate with every component it needs in the domain?


A: 1

B: 2

C: 3

D: 4

Correct Answers: B


10.When a new Publish/Subscribe topology is deployed, prior to deploying any user artifacts, such as message flows, what process might be seen running that is later removed once the broker is restarted?


A: $SYS_topology

B: $SYS_dataflowengine

C: $SYS_mqsi

D: $SYS_default

Correct Answers: C


More information: 70-238  050-695   1Z0-202   1z0-312   350-018   4A0-107   642-444   642-892   646-362   000-998

2008年5月14日星期三

I passed 70-649 exam

Today on 9th Mary 2008, I passed 70-649 exam i.e. TS:Upgrading your MCSE from Windows Server 2003 to Windows Server 2008

I got 1000 score. It was piece of cake for me. May be because I failed 5 times earlier in Active Directory exams on Win2k & 2k3 track. 70-296 was really bad for me. 70-217 as well in late 2003. So this time there was no way to fail the exam. And I am glad I did it. How ever it doesnt mean I am AD master..Hehe !!!

Exam details are as follows :


Preparation Guide for Exam 70-649

TS: Upgrading Your MCSE on Windows Server 2003 to Windows Server 2008, Technology Specialist

Updated: April 29, 2008

About 70-649 Exam news

Exam 70-649: TS: Upgrading Your MCSE on Windows Server 2003 to Windows Server 2008, Technology Specialist, became available in October 2007. This Microsoft Technical Specialist (TS) exam fulfills the Microsoft Certified Technology Specialist (MCTS) on Windows Server 2008 requirements of Exams 70-640, 70-642, and 70-643.

Exam topics covered

Exam 70-649 is an upgrade exam that is a composite of three stand-alone exams: Exams 70-640, 70-642, and 70-643. Exam 70-649 validates skills related to the core technology features and functionality of Windows Server 2008, from the existing knowledge base of a Microsoft Certified Systems Engineer (MCSE) on Windows Server 2003. This "Exam topics covered" section lists the key topics for each source exam, plus the percentage of material per topic for each. See the "Skills measured" section of this page to learn about the testing objectives of Exam 70-649.


Exam 70-640: TS: Windows Server 2008 Active Directory, Configuring


Configuring Server Roles (30 percent)

Maintaining the Active Directory Environment (32 percent)

Configuring the Active Directory Infrastructure (38 percent)

Exam 70-642: TS: Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring


Configuring Network Access (49 percent)

Deploying Servers (51 percent)

Exam 70-643: TS: Windows Server 2008 Applications, Configuring


Configuring Terminal Services (32 percent)

Configuring a Web Services Infrastructure (30 percent)

Configuring Security for Web Services (38 percent)


Remember: Once you finish review of 1st and subsequntly 2nd & 3rd pool you can not go back.

I got 35 mins for 1st pool, 25 mins for 2nd and remaining for 3rd pool.

Skills measures on following topics :

70-640: TS:Windows Server 2008 Active Directory, Configuring

70-642: TS:Windows Server 2008 Network Infrastructure, Configuring

70-643: TS:Windows Server 2008 Application Services, Configuring

I used free virtual labs from Microsoft learning portal, I also downloaded trial copy of "Introduction to Windows server 2008" e-book & went through several TechNet articles about AD in Windows 2008 .


More information:70-643 70-640 70-643